My lead just had the following trade go through:
L.Bell, Dez Bryant, E. Sanders
T. Cohen, T. Coleman, J. Landry, F. Gore
The team that got Bell is 4-2. The team that traded him is 0-6.
The reasoning by the manager that got Bell was that he was providing depth to the other team with his offer.
The issue is that the 0-6 team has not made a single move on the waiver wire all season and has not responded (accept/decline) to any other trade offers all season. This manager has also not been involved in any league discussions all season and has basically been a dead manager. Additionally, the 4-2 manager is the commissioner and I believe he is the only person in our league that actually knows/talks to the manager of the 0-6 team.
So does this sound like grounds for a collusion accusation or am I just being salty?